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On Wed, Mar 07, 2007 at 11:05:12AM -0600, David Smith wrote:
(please trim!)
> [...]
> Hmm, I'm missing something. Why do we need $?var *and* $!var? It seems
> like $?var would suffice.
The reason why it doesn't becomes clear with an example, and with the
realization that $var would still trigger a *translate-time* error if
it did not exist in context.
if ($?var) { use($!var) } // works even if $var would fail to translate
- FChE
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